NET

11 So if perfection had in fact been possible through the Levitical priesthood—for on that basis the people received the law—what further need would there have been for another priest to arise, said to be in the order of Melchizedek and not in Aaron’s order?

Darby

Jesus as Pictured in Melchizedek

11 If indeed then perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, for the people had their law given to them in connexion with *it*^D9051, what need [was there] still that a different priest should arise according to the order of Melchisedec, and not be named after the order of Aaron?

Darby Bible Notes

*it* - Or 'based upon it.'

KJV

Jesus as Pictured in Melchizedek

11 If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need [was there] that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?

Strong's

11 If ^{G1487 G3303} therefore^G3767 perfection^G5050 were^G2258 by^G1223 the Levitical^G3020 priesthood^G2420 ,(for^G1063 under^G1909 it^G846 the people^G2992 received the law^G3549,) what^G5101 further^G2089 need^G5532 was there that another^G2087 priest^G2409 should rise^G450 after^G2596 the order^G5010 of Melchisedec^G3198, and^G2532 not^G3756 be called^G3004 after^G2596 the order^G5010 of Aaron^G2?